ok, but still, maybe its a dumb question but i dont see the difference in attacking f4 or not. Kxc7 can happen either way. i would be glad if you could sum it up for me.
Can you explain me why Be3 is better than Bf2 in Game 9 of the world championship?

ok, but still, maybe its a dumb question but i dont see the difference in attacking f4 or not. Kxc7 can happen either way. i would be glad if you could sum it up for me.
A King+Bishop vs a bare King is a draw. There's no way to checkmate with just a Bishop vs a bare King.
So Black can draw if he can trade his Bishop for White's last two Pawns. Even if White wins all of Black's Pawns for free, he will be left with just a King + Bishop vs king... not enough to mate.
Therefore Black's Be3 move, intending to reply to White's Kxc7 with a capture on f4 (CHECK!), then bring the Bishop back to e3 and give it up for White's last Pawn, when it pushes to a7.

ok, but still, maybe its a dumb question but i dont see the difference in attacking f4 or not. Kxc7 can happen either way. i would be glad if you could sum it up for me.
A King+Bishop vs a bare King is a draw. There's no way to checkmate with just a Bishop vs a bare King.
So Black can draw if he can trade his Bishop for White's last two Pawns. Even if White wins all of Black's Pawns for free, he will be left with just a King + Bishop vs king... not enough to mate.
Therefore Black's Be3 move, intending to reply to White's Kxc7 with a capture on f4 (CHECK!), then bring the Bishop back to e3 and give it up for White's last Pawn, when it pushes to a7.
Thank you very much!
Hey everyone,
I'm quite new to chess and I don't understand why the move Be3 is better than Bf2 in this situation for black. It happened in the 9th game of the world championship.
Can someone explain the difference to me?
Thanks!