how can one win with 1 blunder vs. no blunder + a brilliant?

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DenialOfNature

Is this technically possible? I remember i saw a discussion here before, one who makes the most mistakes.. loses.

well my opponent made a brilliant move and no blunder, I made a blunder with no brilliant whatsoever.. and i won. how about that?

DenialOfNature

to clarify the question, how can 32. Rxg2 is not a blunder for white? since it allows black to checkmate in the next move..

manudude02

The way the engine counts brilliants and blunders, it usually won't give them in positions where the beneficiary is clearly winning. The position prior to Rxg2 was 3.8 in favour of black which means they should be winning barring any major screwups.