Forced en passant?

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stangajoseph

Here is a question: Can you force a player to move en passant? This has only ever happened once in my 30+ years of playing chess; I was in a position which otherwise would have been a stale mate, but the opponent's last move gave me the option to take his pawn en passant. If en passant is at the discretion of the player, but there are no other moves available, is the player required to take it? Discuss.

ThrillerFan

En Passant is no different than any other move except for the fact that it's "Do it now or do it never" - you get one chance to take the pawn that went past your pawn.

So, for example, in the following position, assuming Black's last move was b5-b4, and so White's to move and he plays c4, en passant is FORCED by Black, yet oddly enough, he has a choice of en passants!  But yes, he must play en passant because he is not allowed to "Pass", and it's not stalemate, and so if you have a legal move, you must make a legal move.  Black has 2 of them, and both happen to be en passant, and so he must make one of his 2 available legal moves.:

stangajoseph

Thanks for the answer, ThrillerFan.

 

SallyVIII, you should look up the definition of "troll." Legtimate questions about chess rules do not constitute trolling. Calling someone a troll, however, very well might.

 

Interestingly, this question was debated during the 19th century, according to Wikipedia. It was Howard Staunton, an English master, who definitively answered that the move IS required. If anyone has a source on some of the debate, I should like to see it. It has always occured to me that en passant is a choice, and as such, cannot be compelled.

briansladovich

https://www.chess.com/forum/view/daily-puzzles/5-27-2020-obscured-promotion

EthanBambury
Yah he’s right.
Monie49
I disagree that en passant is “forced.”
En passant is an option to take or not take.
Just like any other capture.
Therefore, it is not forced.

As to the Staunton claim, what is your source of information?
Wikipedia is NOT always correct.
Sred
Monie49 wrote:
I disagree that en passant is “forced.”
En passant is an option to take or not take.
Just like any other capture.
Therefore, it is not forced.

As to the Staunton claim, what is your source of information?
Wikipedia is NOT always correct.

You misread the question.

GMdmitryduvanov

According to the official FIDE Handbook, en passant is a forced move, meaning that whenever an opportunity presents itself, a player MUST capture en passant.

Ubik42
Nonsense.
EnCroissantCheckmate
stangajoseph wrote:

Here is a question: Can you force a player to move en passant? This has only ever happened once in my 30+ years of playing chess; I was in a position which otherwise would have been a stale mate, but the opponent's last move gave me the option to take his pawn en passant. If en passant is at the discretion of the player, but there are no other moves available, is the player required to take it? Discuss.

En passant is ALWAYS forced. I don't know what you are talking about

Ubik42
is this like a deliberate troll thread lol. En passant is not forced.

Just as a silly example to demonstrate how dumb, what if by moving the pawn you discovered an attack the king? Uh oh. Which forced move are you going to do now, the forced en passant capture or the forced moving your king out of check move?

If you gonna troll at least be funny or clever. This is just dumb.
Ubik42
why do people have so much issue with what is a really a pretty simple move. It should take an adult who knows the other rules at most 10 minutes to figure en passant out. I am sure there is a guide that can help you out.
ColdFreeze

I'm very much interested in this question. I'm just surprised by the number of people who misinterpreted the question itself.🙂😂

Martin_Stahl
ColdFreeze wrote:

I'm very much interested in this question. I'm just surprised by the number of people who misinterpreted the question itself.🙂😂

 

The answer is yes. If the only legal move in a position is en passant, it's forced. Which was answered is the second post, now that I fully looked happy

StopTakingMyRooks
Ubik42 wrote:
is this like a deliberate troll thread lol. En passant is not forced.

Just as a silly example to demonstrate how dumb, what if by moving the pawn you discovered an attack the king? Uh oh. Which forced move are you going to do now, the forced en passant capture or the forced moving your king out of check move?

If you gonna troll at least be funny or clever. This is just dumb.

You're in checkmate.

jesuisme

Thank you to all who took the time to answer. This topic isn't trolling or stupid -- I'm a low-level player and didn't know for sure. I ended up at this page after Googling "forced en passant"

The official word from the FIDE Laws of Chess taking effect from 1 January 2018 (emphasis mine):

" 3.7.4.1 A pawn occupying a square on the same rank as and on an adjacent file to an opponent’s pawn which has just advanced two squares in one move from its original square may capture this opponent’s pawn as though the latter had been moved only one square.
3.7.4.2 This capture is only legal on the move following this advance and is called an ‘en passant’ capture. "

Thus, en passant is not forced unless it is the only legal move available to a player.

blueemu
stangajoseph wrote:

If en passant is at the discretion of the player, but there are no other moves available, is the player required to take it? Discuss.

Yes. If a player has legal moves available, he must choose one and play it.

Knights_of_Doom

It is easy to get confused on this point.  En passant is NOT forced - meaning just because an en passant is available doesn't mean you have to do it.  Unless it is your only move, in which case it is forced - but not because it's en passant (that's irrelevant), but rather because it happens to also be your only available move.

The reason it's confusing is that en passant cannot be deferred, meaning that if you want to play en passant you must do so at the move when it becomes available - if you want to wait until the next move, the door closes and you can't play it any more.  So it is sort-of forced, in the sense that if you want to play it, you are "forced" to do so on that move... you don't have the choice to wait until the next move.  But it's not really forced, in that you aren't obligated to play it (unless it is your only available move, which is the case for any move, regardless of whether or not it's en passant).

bigD521
GMdmitryduvanov wrote:

According to the official FIDE Handbook, en passant is a forced move, meaning that whenever an opportunity presents itself, a player MUST capture en passant.

There is no way this is in any rule book. You had to have interpreted something stated incorrectly.

@stangajoseph When a 2 square pawn advance creates an en passant situation, there is always a choice. If the move will mate,(which means the pawn is protected IE: on b4) then your choices are call en passant and capture the pawn, or resign.

Presuming there are no better moves available, when the same advance attacks a trapped Queen you have 4 choices. Play another move which does not help, and allow capture. Take the protected pawn with your Queen, then lose the Queen. Call en passant and capture the pawn. Resign.

In any of the above, or something similar, it is obvious that there is only one good answer. Thus it would be considered that en passant would be a forced move

blueemu

Here's a chess rules / en passent question:

In the following position, with White to move:

... White gleefully announced mate-in-3 and played Bg2+
 
Black replied "You've mated yourself!" and played d7-d5 discovered check.
 
White captured en passent at d6 and said "Mate!"
 
Black objected "You can't move that... you're already checkmated!"
 
White shook his head. "Your Pawn never reached the d5 square. It was captured en passent while crossing the d6 square. You never blocked my original check. YOU are mated, not ME."
 
The two players could not agree, and the position was submitted for FIDE arbitration.
 
Who wins?